Let's return to our topic: It appears that the matter—poetry dealing with events that have not yet occurred—can be resolved in another way. However, before doing so, let's present additional questions that need to be asked on this matter:

At the end of the song, it says: "The Lord will reign forever and ever." One should scrutinize why it is said in the future tense, and not 'King' in the present tense, or 'reigned' in the past tense, as we say in prayer (Pesukei Dezimra, 'Yehi Kavod'): "The Lord is King, the Lord was King, the Lord will reign forever and ever." And indeed, Onkelos translated it as: "The Lord's kingdom stands forever and forever," thus correcting the intent of the verse from future tense to a tense encompassing past, present, and future. According to his translation, the meaning is that the kingdom of the Lord stands, exists, and is forever, which includes past, present, and future. Similarly, Ramban explained Onkelos' words, stating: "Onkelos feared it because the kingdom belongs to God forever, and therefore he made it present tense, 'The Lord's kingdom stands forever and forever,' as in, 'Your kingdom is a kingdom for all ages' (Psalms 145:13)," etc. And it is possible that this is the reason why in Kedushah and Uva Letzion, which we say daily, we also translate this verse, "The Lord will reign forever and ever," in the same way we translate the two verses of Kedushah, "Holy, Holy, Holy," and "Blessed be the glory," because we fear lest it be heard, God forbid, that the kingdom of the Lord is not always existent.

However, Ramban himself was cautious about this precision, writing on Onkelos' words: "I did not understand his opinion in this, as it is written: 'May the glory of the Lord endure forever' (Psalms 104:31). 'And let His glory fill the whole earth' (Psalms 72:19). 'May His great name be exalted and sanctified' (Kaddish text). 'May Your name be established and magnified' (1 Chronicles 17:24)," etc. And we will return to his words below, with God's help. Indeed, according to Onkelos' own opinion, it is still difficult, for the Israelites did not say as he did, and if the words needed correction according to him, then why did the Israelites not say it in a corrected manner?

Similarly, one can question the words of the Mekhilta (Masechta D'Shira, Parasha 10), where it says: "The Lord will reign forever and ever—Rabbi Yossi the Galilean says, if Israel had said at the sea 'The Lord is King forever and ever,' no nation or tongue would have dominated them ever, but they said 'The Lord will reign forever and ever,' referring to the future," etc. It is explained that in his opinion, their expression was not appropriate, and if so, it is difficult as mentioned above, why indeed the Israelites expressed themselves in an uncorrected manner. This question has two aspects: Firstly, regarding their reasoning, for they, and Moses who stood at their head, were certainly wise and understanding no less than our holy sages who criticized them, and if so, what made them say as they did. Secondly, the words were spoken with divine inspiration, so how is it possible that there would be an error in them?